Nazarene Space

there is much controversy over whether or not Messiah spoke hebrew or aramaic as His day to day language and which one the gospels were originally written in. According to some, when Yeshua was on the cross and called out Eli, Eli, He was speaking Hebrew, because some of the people in the crowd thought He was calling Elijah and others Yahweh. They claim that had He been speaking Aramaic, there wouldn't have been any confusion, whereas in Hebrew Eli could be interpreted as both. This is some of the basis that claims the Brit Chadashah was written in Hebrew first before the greek. Can anyone comment on this?

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I personally believe that He did speak hebrew, but many people don't so I was hoping to hear different opinions and their explanations. You have once again given well researched and understood information! Thanks and shalom.

Rabbi Dr. Yosef ben Haggai said:

Shalom Your Excellency!

When Ha-Shem spoke to Abraham Abinu he spoke in Ivrit, when He spoke to Yitzchaq and Ya'aqov He spoke in Ivrit, when He spoke to His congregation and His people at Har Sinai He spoke in Ivrit. All the Prophets communicated to us in Ivrit, except with parts of Daniel that are in Aramit, So all in all 95% of communications were in Ivrit. Ivrit is the Lashon HaQodesh. Hakham Shaul when speaking to the King of Israel set up by the Romans, the recond in II Lukas says that he spoke in Ivrit, why then would His Majesty King Yeshuah and his Talmidim speak any other language than the Lashon HaQodesh?

True, the Talmud and other Rabbinic literature are in Aramit, but it seems to me that Maimonides and R. Yosef Karo both returned Halakhic writing to Ivrit. So I bet anything that the original writings of the Nazarean Codicil were originally written in perfect Ivrit at the text of Matityahu, Markos Lukas and the Apocalypse clearly shows. This in fact was the discovery of a Baptist Pastor in Jerusalem when he retranslated the so called Gospel of Mark back to Hebrew.

Please read:

"A Hebrew Translation of the Gospel of Mark"
by: Robert Lisle Lindsey
Jerusalem: Dugith Publishers, Baptis House, 1st Ed. 1969, 2nd Ed. 1973.

Hope this helps.

Shalom UBrakhot!

Hakham Dr. Yosef ben Haggai
I would have to agree wholeheartedly with Dr Yoseph ben Haggai. I had the tanakh in paleo-hebrew ubntil my computer crash- and the only difference I ever noted was the appearance of the letters. There are some interesting pictures and ideas that come out of the paleo hebrew script- as well as with the Ashuritic square script. There is a website that deals quite extensively with this subject- , which has launched me on some pretty interesting studies. There is also a field of study called "edenics" which seeks to prove that all languages can be traced back to Hebrew. I have a book called "The Word- The Dictionary That Reveals The Hebrew Source of English" by Isaac E. Mozeson that traces some 20,000 English words back to Hebrew roots. As far as what language YESHUA spoke, I think there may have been some Aramaic influence in the common vernacular. I live in west Texas, where though we speak English, there is some, especially in the agricultural fields, Spanish influence in our language. My opinion is that the MASTER used what was needed at the moment- most probably and most usually Hebrew, if not always. Hope this helps some also, Shalom, kenny cartwright
thanks for the comment Tom, there are so many learned brothers and sisters here on this site I often worry I sound a little dumb asking these BEGINNER questions if you know what I mean. I know little hebrew. I finished Zola Levitts introduction to Hebrew book, which was a wonderful tool and I learned to read and write the language. The problem is though, I can read it and write it, but I have clue what the words I'm reading and writing actually say! I've had trouble with learning the actually meaning of the words other than what I hear through study and at synagogue or on music lyrics. So I would be very interested in a begginers Hebrew group. I'm also interested in hearing your question about what the inscription above Yeshuas head said because I've heard some different things about it myself and I'm wondering just what your reffering to about it.
Yeshua' used to speak in order to be understood by people of his time !

So, there are two geographical zones and two languages to consider.

1. In Gallil:
The vernacular language was a sort of Gallilean Aramaic and Yeshua' spoke this language when teaching the people.
Aramaic language people today say that, in Yeshua' payer Our Father, the Aramaic text has an internal rythm very typical which is a trademark of its original language.
Howewer, in Synagogues, readings and prayers were in Hebrew, the same as today. I don't know about the teaching language. But I think, because of the obligation to read also the Aramaic Targum, teaching was in Aramaic.

2. Now in Yerushalaim:
After the return from Babel, people used to speak more and more Aramaic in place of original Hebrew. Then came the Greek.

1st book of Maccabee explains how Greek language has been compulsory in Yerushalaim.
So Hebrew/Aramaic were completely forbidden, for fear of death. It was also forbidden to teach Hebrew to children.
Only a few very religious people kept on speaking Hebrew. This Jewish speaking people took the name of "Jews" (those who never spoke Greek).

After the Victory of the Maccabees, people returned to Hebrew following religious leaders.
This is well related in 1st Maccabee, and archeology confirms it. For instance, in the Qumran manuscripts, on 10 mss 9 are Hebrew and 1 Aramaic.

So, in the time of Yeshua', Hebrew was the vernacular language of Jerusalem and Judea, and Yeshua' used to speak Hebrew in Yerushalaim.

Likewise, when the young Yeshua' spent 3 days speaking with the scholars in the Yerushalaim Temple after his Bar Mitsvah, he spoke Hebrew.

This Hebrew was a vernacular spoken Hebrew, slightly different from biblical Hebrew. Manuscripts of Kumran, Hebrew Matthew Gospel and some Yrushalmi Talmud texts use this particular Hebrew.

The "Jews" in the Gospels are snobby descendants of the people who proudly never accepted to speak Greek and only spoke Hebrew.

Had Christians not rejected the 1st book of Maccabees, they could have a better love and knowledge of Jewish origins.

I believe He spoke Hebrew and Aramaic interchangeably, as these were the language of the Scriptures as well as the times. Some say that He quoted the Septuagint, but this could be due to the fact that He quoted an Older Hebrew Text (other than the Masorete texts) that the Septuagint was copied from. And He more than likely would have had to spoke in the language of the woman at the well in Samaria what ever that is. 













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