Have you heard of people critisizing the use of Matthew 5:18-19 and other New Testament books saying it was added in by Greek scribes because of "gaps"in papyrus?
I think their argument is about the" textual variants"of the Gospel of Matthew and Apostolic books.
There are those claiming that the Aramaic Phisetta is copied from Greek. Thereforw, It cant give us the true story.
Can you address these allegations with some historical facts as a translator.
The "gaps" in Papyrus are only a lack of Papyri witnesses to parts of the text. But absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, The Peshitta is a revision of the Old Syriac in an effort to make the Syraic (Aramaic) text better agree with the Byzantine type of Greek text.
Ok. Todah for your expert testimony!